Page 1 of 1

has the meaning...

Posted: Sat Aug 31, 2019 7:59 am
by navi
1) Face has the meaning as in the saying "to lose face".

Source:
Jan Renkema, Introduction to Discourse Studies, John Benjamin's Publishing Company, Amsterdam/Philadelphia, 2004, p. 24
Link:

https://books.google.com/books?id=9KJXn ... 22&f=false


Here is the full passage:

"An important source of inspiration in the study of politeness phenomena is the
work done by Erving Goffman (1956). This social psychologist introduced the
concept of face. By this he meant the image that a person projects in his
social contacts with others. Face has the meaning as in the saying "to lose
face"."
Ibid, pp. 24-25

Is '1' correct? And is it saying that face has the exact same meaning it has in the saying 'to lose face' or does it mean it has a meaning (roughly) similar to the one it has in 'to lose face'?

The more I think about it, the less I like '1'. I think it should be:

2) Face has the meaning it has in the saying "to lose face".


Gratefully,
Navi

Re: has the meaning...

Posted: Sat Aug 31, 2019 9:21 pm
by Bobinwales
I agree, but having said that I would have accepted the explanation if the writer had used inverted commas (quotation marks).
.
"Face" has the meaning as in the saying "to lose face".

Re: has the meaning...

Posted: Thu Sep 05, 2019 6:17 pm
by Phil White
Grammatically, sentence 1 is, shall we say, "loose". I prefer your version.

As to whether the author meant "has the exact same meaning" or "has a similar meaning", one would need to read the entire text and, indeed answer the question whether the single word "face" has any meaning at all when isolated from the idiom "to lose face". The meanings of idioms are rarely the sum of the meanings of their component parts. Within the idiom "to lose face", I cannot really see that the word "face" has any meaning that can actually be isolated and used elsewhere outside of the idiom. But that is another argument.